The question is straight:
Which range contains more rational numbers?
- 0 to 1
- 1 to 10
The question being put in such a straight manner, there was not much to think about.
First of all, we have to provide some liberty to the quizzer and lets not pounce on him saying that infinity cannot be compared with infinity, rather we would say that let the number of rational numbers between 0 and 1 is x (which is very very large).
Intuitively, we can say that if we add 1 to each of these x numbers, we will get x numbers in the range 1 to 2, and adding 1 further we get another set of x numbers in range 2 to 3 and so on until we get x numbers in range 9 to 10.
By this logic, it is pretty clear that if we have x numbers in range 0 to 1 we have 9x numbers in range 1 to 10.
Now the simplicity of this problem is seriously challenged by the following counter argument.
Assume that there are y distinct rational numbers in range 1 to 10. Consider the reciprocals of all these y numbers in the range 1 to 10. There are three things that we know about these new y numbers.
- All y are rational numbers.
- All y are distinct (Knowing that all distinct rational numbers have distinct reciprocals).
- All y lie between 0 and 1 (Reciprocals of numbers>1 lie between 0 and 1)
This means that the range 0 to 1 contains at least y rational numbers. (and more, eg the reciprocals of numbers greater that 10 as well)
By this logic, it is pretty clear that rational numbers lying in 0 to 1 range are far more than rational numbers lying in range 1 to 10.
Paradox or Anomaly?
How does one explain that?

